How does the fact that a patent owner's initial offer need not be RAND support the conclusion that there is no obligation to make a (F)RAND offer, or that there is an obligation to grant (F)RAND licenses?
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How does the fact that a patent owner's initial offer need not be RAND support the conclusion that there is no obligation to make a (F)RAND offer, or that there is an obligation to grant (F)RAND licenses?